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so this is an EUR-denominated receivable, you don't retranslate it after initial recognition, you just record 100 EUR and ignore fx rates movements

how much do you actually receive if the spot rate changes to 1 EUR for 2 USD?

it seems you're mixing up monetary and non-monetary items Leo, have a read:

https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-bas ... ting-dates

This sounds like some administrative task only, I would carefully consider the derecognition criteria.

If you keep them at year-end, then use the year-end fx rate. But double check if you don't need to derecognise these bonds before year-end. BTW what's the reason for the delay between signing the contract and the actual sale? What needs to happen between these two dates. Related KB page: https://ifr...

this part is also relevant: https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-base/financial-liabilities-vs-equity/#link-contracts-settled-in-the-entitys-own-equity-instruments Entered into a $9M loan that requires a minimum fixed amount of quarterly payments of $200,000 that is not interest-bearing [...]. Also a...

General principles apply, I think it will be useful to look for general guidance for entities holding clients' funds, e.g. this one:

https://www.grantthornton.global/global ... oint-1.pdf

it could be an interesting topic to dig into... for example, Interactive Brokers, one of the biggest broker that is a public company, shows client assets as their assets: IB.PNG https://investors.interactivebrokers.com/en/index.php?f=2244&t=10-K&i=100&d=2022-02-25&a=1645828800&fm...

Well maybe 'under own name' wasn't the most accurate expression when it comes to crypto assets

Good question, are you really holding them on behalf of clients, or just hold a net position in your own name

If you received all those lease incentives, then you won't see any impact on lease liability now. There would be some really minor differences in terms of timing of interest expense if you had accounted for the second payment at the beginning, but I wouldn't care about it.

Ps. What about this agenda decision:

https://www.ifrs.org/news-and-events/up ... ch-2018/#7

That could apply to fx gains or losses too

I was thinking about paras B5.7.2A and B5.7.3 but they are not conclusive really for assets at FVTPL so I guess you're right, i.e. it is possible to show the foreign exchange impact separately from the impact of the price component

I think that IFRS 9 mentions somewhere that you don't 'bifurcate' fx movements for assets carried at fair value but I can't find it right now, I'll try to revisit this tomorrow

Leo wrote: ↑10 May 2022, 11:10 is that possible to elect only one of them for FVTOCI?

yes, it's an election made on a share-by-share basis

Leo wrote: ↑10 May 2022, 11:10 Is that possible for investments initially recognised as FVTPL to subsequently opting for the option FVTOCI ?

no, it's an option available at initial recognition only

as Leo wrote, the issuer does not remeasure financial instruments classified as equity

https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-bas ... -as-equity

Especially because it would be weird to have an investment presented as a cash equivalent that was not a monetary item. spot on, I think that an asset that satisfies the definition of cash equivalent in IAS 7 must be a monetary asset I appreciate that this may not have a big impact on financial rep...

You're right JRSB, there's no point is showing items that scored 'low' on both axis

Yes that's correct

Yes IAS 27 allows to measure investments in subs under IFRS 9, which in turns allows to classify equity investments as FVOCI https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-base/ias-27-separate-financial-statements/#link-preparation-of-separate-financial-statements https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-base/ifrs-...

I was browsing the annual report of the IFRS foundation* and noticed an interesting visualisation of key audit matters and other risks in audit report by GT: GT.PNG I think this approach can be very useful as opposed to the usual binary approach taken by auditors https://www.ifrs.org/content/dam/ifr...

A recent publication by pwc, but I haven't read it:

https://viewpoint.pwc.com/dt/gx/en/pwc/ ... _gx_en_ext

Anything interesting in it?

You would need to determine fair value anyway, but if expected proceeds are close to nil then fair value probably won't be significant enough to bother. So I would too write off the whole investment

Most jurisdictions simply require each legal entity to produce separate financial statements. And if an entity is part of an IFRS group, it is allowed or required (depending on the jurisdiction) to use IFRS for those separate financial statements. If so, IAS 27 applies.

Wow, been thinking about this for over a year?

The possibility to use equity method in separate financial statements is a relatively recent amendment to IAS 27 (issued in 2014) so maybe your boss wasn't aware of it

IFRS 10.2(a) should clarify that

jrn816 wrote: ↑05 May 2022, 19:23 I can't find any technical reference that says this is the case so I am confused.

IAS 27.9-10

Hi, you won't prepare consolidated financial statements if you don't have any subsidiaries. In separate financial statements, you can present the investment in associate at cost, under IFRS 9, or using the equity method. It's an accounting policy choice, i.e. you can decide freely. In consolidated f...