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I worked with a company with diagnostic lab equipment and they used 4-5 years but may not be useful for the reason above.

if you're the auditor then it's for the client to make that judgement isn't it. We can't really comment as it depends on that specific equipment and the business etc

you can easily find some examples/benchmarks in pharma companies

do your own staff not know how long the machines will be used for?

IFRS 16 has two options for transition.

cost being NBV at transfer date

lower of cost and net realisable amount.

I don't think an auditor will go for that for an AIM quoted equity

you could use another valuation technique like cost, NAV or discounted cash flow or most recent fundraise or something

Parent and child are not close family?

Yes I'd think generally AIM would be L1 but I can see counterarguments depending on which company. Some people might hold at using other approaches.

If you have an agreement with a supplier to buy something, and then charge that to your own customer later, it's no different to the other costs going into the provision of the service. Revenue and other side cost of sales. There may be specific scenarios where you are the agent or something but wou...

As in disbursements that you incur and then charge to the customer?

IFRS 15.47

Do you mean discounts given to customers? IFRS 15 tells you revenue is net of discounts. Therefore a discount is not an expense.

Is that what you mean?

yes
up to you
none

yes but maybe elect as PLOCI given the volatility expected?

Hi Hassen

The price you actually pay. Common for AIM companies to issue shares below the traded price when fundraising; there can be limited liquidity and volatility can be high. Price might spike when your investment is announced but doesn't mean you'd be able to offload your holding at that elevated price e...

yes. why did you choose the cost model? always seems odd as you have to disclose the fair value anyway.

What's your reading of the standard?

Oh I thought C acquires B but A 'pays' for it in services.

If wonder if the cost of providing those specific services is actually a distribution, as the owner is extracting that value to settle their liability (to acquire B). I assume A and C have common ownership.

So A signs a contract where it performs services and gets nothing in return. So it's not revenue as the scope of IFRS 15 requires commercial substance.

Why would A do this? Seems like the owner of A is extracting value in 'services' for its own purposes.

I'm not sure if there are any US-based posters on this forum

The earn out was not recognised as a liability? It should have been recorded at fair value. Maybe it was a stretch target recorded at nil? It will increase goodwill accordingly once paid later? Only if it's a measurement period adjustment, otherwise that should be to P&L. May be worth looking at...

Seems like PPE to me.

I would have the same view. Either the audit is finished or it isn't; if it isn't, then management shouldn't be signing. If it is, the auditor should be ready to sign.

I would say it's not a policy; as the business grows in size your threshold might increase too but I don't see restatements as necessary; presumably the impact is almost by definition immaterial too.

a bit confusing because the investment in subsidiary is nothing to do with the consolidated financial statements, but if that entity was acquired in a business combination then maybe you have DT movements on group level intangibles.