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I suppose for an asset under construction, there will be a daily 'series' of IREs?

What is AHS?

I would say that an arm's length sales price at 9 Jan is good evidence of the fair value 9 days earlier.

It's held at fair value, is it?

I assume this is not a financial reporting question?

In which case the answer is whether you can afford the premiums presumably, and what level of cover you need. This may not be the right forum for healthcare advice though.

V nice

yes, for example in IFRS 15 there are 63 specific scenarios as examples of the correct application.

but actually if you look at (Free) Big 4 guides, often the same examples are used.

Part B of this https://shop.ifrs.org/product-detail?id=2164

I wouldn't expect you'd need too much more than the standard, application guidance and this website

Is it not just on the principle that you are in effect 'giving' the lessor the present value of interest generated by that deposit and so that's a cost just like other initial costs.

You're either saying that goodwill needs to be tested at the level of multiple CGUs, or that it's impaired...

It may be that goodwill is allocated across various CGUs (and therefore tested at a higher level than any one CGU).... Start by considering what it represents....why did you pay more than the fair value of assets in the first place?

Many congrats Marek

sounds like the Supply@MeCapital 'idea' we've discussed on these forums before

I learnt it from Marek! https://ifrscommunity.com/knowledge-bas ... osits-paid

It's a financial asset (right to receive cash) at day-1 fair value, ie present value of the cash you'll get at the end, and the difference between face value and fair value is addition to RoU asset at the start of the lease. In plain English, the interest you are foregoing during the lease term is c...

It's significant enough that the auditors want a memo? in any case it sounds in effect like a fee the client is paying ie their money is earning interest and you're holding on to a portion of it. presumably that is then other income as it's not your principle activity.

IAS 16.58 is referred in Marek's link

Are you 100% sure the client isn't entitled (in law or regulation) to the full interest earned?

Judgement/professional input

are there any conditions other than waiting 3 years? otherwise it does seem like free shares given in 3 years' time. do you hold that 10% interest at fair value?

Sounds like the land is inventory for a short period so follow the IAS2 rules on capitalising costs and expense the rest.

The guidance is IFRS 10, ie the principles of consolidated accounting.

As in, you paid a premium up front and then effectively zero for the remainder of the lease term?

I think you have, at group level there is just the group with a receivable from X

is your lease in fact for land, as you say in your example?
If so, presumably you are doing nothing with it, since the lessor can cancel the lease with no notice.
There must be other factors to the scenario, what are the wider economics of the arrangement.

TO me it's still an 'internally generated' intangible even if you used outsourced support, eg you didn't buy the asset, you constructed/developed it.

no but you could benchmark against similar companies

I think SIC32 just serves as a clarification of how IAS 38 applies, so all the same good stuff applies like in SIC32 para 8 as to how you'll demonstrate economic benefits, etc, whether internally capitalised or purchased..

12 years may be a reasonable bet then....

The accounting policy disclosure is deficient then.... or is this an immaterial element of the business?

How do you have access to those cost and depreciation figures, but not the accounts themselves?