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Interested to hear where you are with it currently ConfussedA. Do you think it's a genuine sale in substance?

if your business is only doing export business then maybe perform the reconciliation against 3%. you don't have to use the headline rate in your country. if it's a mix then a reconciling item might be the effect of reduced rate on export profits. for deferred tax, same question really...what are you...

so the estimate of useful life may have been wrong in the first place then.

but anyway, once it's fully depreciated you can't bring the value back unless you think there was an error to restate.

or have you overhauled the asset so that it has a new cost to depreciate?

is it because of an error in earlier periods, or new information about the useful life?

Leo, maybe the subsidiary has net liabilities which is why the existing shareholders would be happy to be diluted in this way.

PS are the (now) minority shareholders happy with this arrangement!

It's an interesting question, since the cash never leaves the group. So the group isn't acquiring that cash.

Seems like a restructuring provision (with disclosure) will do the trick. Presumably this is one element of various costs to be incurred as part of that restructuring. IAS 19 scope says it includes items where an obligation arises and where there is no realistic alternative but to pay the benefit. W...

Jackob, good point about bullet loans, maybe there's 1 day left but actually there is no record of payments being made, as none were due until the last day. I guess that makes monitoring much more complex as you have no observable information. I guess you obtain even more evidence in these cases, eg...

If you're asking whether it's acceptable to show the interest within finance costs, yes, I think you've identified the para which requires that.

Depends on the wording in the loan agreement as to the contractual period over which interest accrues. But if it's contractually due, then the bad debt is the entire amount including accrued interest.

Are you writing off, or raising a 100% credit loss provision?

If you isolate R&D costs as a separate P&L line perhaps you're better to put the RoU asset depreciation there?

write back through P&L, effectively as a change in measurement of contingent consideration

statement of changes in equity.

are you referring to the share based payment charge within P&L? (ie the debit rather than the credit)? if so, add it back as a non-cash movement.

presumably you'd already know with certainty if it had defaulted by the time you prepare the financial reports..?

as far as I'm aware CA06 only talks about exemption from consolidation in terms of group size, ie you are exempt if you are a small group, as defined. I'd be surprised if there is much of a cross section between 'small' groups and those who apply IFRS and are investment companies. I guess if there's...

I'm mean there is no definition so you can do what you want as long as it's consistent and not misleading.

not yet

It's 3 years later so if A had considered the $1m was payable, it is assessed that the fair value of that contingent consideration was $1m at the time, then reverse through P&L.

Or was it an error to record the $1m as a liability in the first place based on information at the time?

Sorry I don't follow the issue exactly.

Where does CA06 say individual accounts have to show subsidiaries at fair value?

Intangible assets acquired with variable consideration is an open matter so you can determine a policy. But is it an intangible asset?

Seems like the per page fee is a variable lease payment hence not in the lease liability (P&L when incurred)

yes

if you hold at cost you need to disclose the fair value anyway, so it'll be clear if that is lower than carrying value.

also, the scope of IAS 36 includes investment property held at cost as only FV model Investment property is scoped out

A receivable is a financial asset.

I don't see how an implicit interest rate can be variable in that sense, since it is implicit through replicating the present value of lease payments compared to what you would pay to acquire the asset outright. are the lease payments themselves variable?

In a basic case, you just have zero tax liability if you're allowed to use those previous losses to offset. And then given you have a profit, maybe you have a deferred tax asset if profits are probable forward, to the extent unused losses remain. But sounds like your question is a tax one rather tha...